ICWIM LATEST BRAINDUMPS PDF - ICWIM EXAMCOLLECTION FREE DUMPS

ICWIM Latest Braindumps Pdf - ICWIM Examcollection Free Dumps

ICWIM Latest Braindumps Pdf - ICWIM Examcollection Free Dumps

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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q134-Q139):

NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following underlies the pillars of risk tolerance?

  • A. Psychological traits
  • B. Sociological traits
  • C. Education
  • D. Experience

Answer: A

Explanation:
Risk tolerance is primarily determined by an investor's psychological traits, such as their emotional response to financial risk.
* Why is Option A Correct?
* Investors' decision-making processes are influenced by behavioral finance, emotions, and cognitive biases.
* Some investors are naturally risk-averse, while others are risk-seeking.
* Why Not Other Options?
* B (Sociological traits) # Social factors may influence investment choices but do not define risk tolerance.
* C (Education) # Knowledge affects investment decisions, but risk tolerance is deeply personal.
* D (Experience) # Investors may gain confidence with experience, but core risk preferences remain psychological.
# Reference: CFA Institute (Behavioral Finance & Risk Tolerance), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.


NEW QUESTION # 135
It is a regulatory requirement for financial advisers to explain any potential additional obligations for clients making a transaction in:

  • A. Bonds
  • B. Derivatives
  • C. Equities
  • D. Commodities

Answer: B

Explanation:
Derivatives (e.g., options, futures, swaps) carry high complexity and risk, requiring financial advisers to disclose additional obligations under regulatory guidelines.
* Why Required?
* High Leverage Risk: Clients may lose more than their initial investment.
* Margin Calls: Clients may be required to add additional funds if the position moves against them.
* Complex Nature: Not all retail investors understand derivative pricing and risk exposure.
* Regulation: The FCA Conduct of Business Sourcebook (COBS 14) requires full disclosure for derivative products.
# Reference: FCA Handbook (COBS 14), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.


NEW QUESTION # 136
Assuming an upward-sloping yield curve that does not change, how can a fund manager profit from buying a longer-dated bond?

  • A. The gross redemption yield will rise on the purchased bond as maturity nears
  • B. The yield will rise as the bond gets closer to maturity, so the bond can be sold for a profit
  • C. As time passes, the yield and price of the purchased bond will rise
  • D. The yield will fall as the bond gets closer to maturity, so the bond can be sold for a profit

Answer: D

Explanation:
In an upward-sloping yield curve, long-term bonds typically have higher yields than short-term bonds. As the bond nears maturity:
* Price Appreciation: The bond price rises as the yield declines due to the pull-to-par effect.
* Capital Gains Opportunity: A fund manager can sell the bond before maturity for a profit if interest rates remain unchanged.
* Yield and Price Relationship: Bond prices move inversely to yields. When yields fall, prices rise, allowing for a profit upon sale.
# Reference: CISI Wealth & Investment Management (Fixed-Income Securities), CFA Institute (Bond Pricing & Yield Curves).


NEW QUESTION # 137
A firm acting as an agent makes money by:

  • A. Profiting from the spread
  • B. Trading against its own order book
  • C. Charging their client a commission
  • D. Providing advice

Answer: C

Explanation:
When a firm acts as an agent, it executes trades on behalf of clients and earns a commission for each transaction.
* Why is Option C Correct?
* Agents do not take ownership of securities but facilitate transactions.
* They charge a fixed fee or percentage-based commission for each trade executed.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Profiting from the spread) # Market makers profit from bid-ask spreads, not agents.
* B (Providing advice) # Advice is provided by investment advisers, not agents.
* D (Trading against its own order book) # Agents do not take opposing positions; this applies to principal trading.
# Reference: FCA Handbook (Market Conduct Rules), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.


NEW QUESTION # 138
Performance attribution analysis attempts to explain why a portfolio had a certain return. It does so by breaking down the performance and attributing the results based on the decisions made by the fund manager on which of the following?

  • A. Asset allocation alone
  • B. The combination of asset allocation, sector choice, and security selection
  • C. Asset allocation and sector choice only
  • D. The combination of asset allocation, sector choice, security selection, and risk analysis

Answer: B

Explanation:
Performance attribution analysis evaluates the performance of a portfolio by breaking it into components attributed to specific investment decisions. These include:
* Asset Allocation: The decision on the proportion of the portfolio allocated to different asset classes (e.
g., stocks, bonds).
* Sector Choice: Selecting specific sectors (e.g., technology, healthcare) within asset classes.
* Security Selection: Choosing individual securities within the selected sectors.
Risk analysis, while critical for investment management, is not typically part of standard performance attribution frameworks.
References:
* International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Portfolio performance evaluation section.
* Standard attribution models: Brinson, Hood, and Beebower model widely used in performance attribution.


NEW QUESTION # 139
......

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